Answer 35

35.  Choice B is the correct answer.  This case of contact dermatitis is too severe for topical treatment with hydrocortisone.  In addition, it is low potency steroid.  Benadryl would help help with the symptoms but not do much for the underlying disorder.  Shingles is not in the differential because this lesion crosses the midline so acyclovir is not indicated.

Question 35

35.  Which of the following is the best management option for the condition depicted below in the photograph?

A.  Hydrocortisone Cream
B.  Prednisone tapered for 2 weeks
C.  Acyclovir
D.  Benadryl

Answer 34

34.  Choice B is the correct answer.  Acute urticaria persists for less than 30 days.  Chronic urticaria lasts greater than 30 days.  

Question 34

34.  How long does urticaria have to persist before it is considered chronic urticaria?

A.  Greater than 15 days
B.  Greater than 30 days
C.  Greater than 60 days
D.  Greater than 90 days

Answer 33

33.  Choice D is the correct answer.  Incision and drainage is needed for definitive treatment of a pilonidal abscess,  Keflex, bactrim, and warm compresses each would help but not definitively treat pilonidal abscess.

Question 33

33.  What is the best management option for the disease depicted the the photograph below?

A.  Keflex 500 mg QID
B.  Bactrim DS one PO BID
C.  Warm Compresses
D.  Incision and Drainage

Answer 32

32.  Choice B is the correct answer.  The hyperpigmentation is exacerbated by exposed areas of light. The patients with Melasma need to have high SPF sunblock over sun exposed areas.  It is associated with pregnancy, oral contraceptives, or can be idiopathic.

Question 32

32.  Which of the following is not true regarding Melasma?

A.  It is an acquired dark brown or light brown hyperpigmentation that occurs in the exposed areas to sunlight
B.  The mainstay of treatment is UVA and UVB
C.  The mainstay of treatment is SPF sunblock
D.  It is associated with pregnancy, oral contraceptives, or can be idiopathic

Answer 31

31.  Choice B is the correct answer.  This presentation is typical for lipomas.  They are typically round, painless, and freely movable.  These typically are not removed unless they bother the patient.  Biopsy would be necessary if the diagnosis.  Lipomas typically occur on the neck, trunk, and extremities.  Cephalexin would be appropriate if there was a question of a soft tissue infection but this lesion is painless so this is not likely.  

Question 31

31.  Your patient is a 45 year old female that presents with this painless freely moveable lesion depicted in the photograph below.  Which of the following is the best management option?

A.  Incision and Drainage

B.  Observation

C.  Biopsy

D.  Place of cephalexin for 10 days